Aerilas Posted October 13, 2012 Share Posted October 13, 2012 In the films it's always said that there are only 1 or 2 sith at any given moment, and it has been like that for hundreds or thousands of years. How then do they tend to explain SWTOR into the story of the films? SWTOR where everybody knows what sith are since they simply stick a lightsaber in everything that moves. Where did the transition come from sith being everywhere to there only being 1 or 2? Even if the republic won and wiped them out to there only being 1 or 2, lore should tell the galaxy about the sith, shouldn't it? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Iwih Posted October 13, 2012 Share Posted October 13, 2012 (edited) Darth Bane came with the rule of 2 about 1000 years before the movies http://starwars.wikia.com/wiki/Darth_Bane Edited October 13, 2012 by Iwih Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Uluain Posted October 13, 2012 Share Posted October 13, 2012 And that is still 2,600 years in the future from the time of SWTOR. (To give you some idea of just how long of a time that really is, 2,600 years ago is roughly when a blind Greek poet name Homer was writing the epic tale of the Trojan war and the wanderings of Odysseus.) The time of the setting was chosen as one where it is plausible to have an order of Sith which rivals the Jedi order in numbers, and to leave room for plot developments without running into any great contradictions. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Aerilas Posted October 13, 2012 Author Share Posted October 13, 2012 Thank you Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts